ATP FINAL 1 , 2, 3 , 5 많고 , 8 3개 , 7 1개 ,
헷갈린거
1. 안개 , 안개 잘 형성되는 temp/dew C F
2. NADP
3. 홀딩고도 속도
4. IFR PLAN A-Z 의미
5. VCOA
6. WAKE TURB CATEGORY
7. BRAKE ACTION ***
8.WIND
9. GRID MORA MAGENTA GREEN 기준
10. MIA
11. 항공기 사고 , 준사고 , 즉시보고사항*****
12. 법정연료 *** ( 기상 좋아서 교체비행장 안수립 경우 ) ( 시계비행 ) ( GA 항공기 )
**13. dorsal fin & ruddervator (dorsal fin 역할 더 )
14. DECIDE MODEL ACRONYM
15. DE ICING 용액1-4 색깔 , TKS SYSTEM
16. ZERO SIDE SLIP LONGITUDINAL AXIS & FLIGHT PATH , Vmc 요소 10가지
17. SCREEN HEIGHT 이착륙 DRY WET 높이
18. MAXIMUM RANGE의 BEST RANGE BEST ENDURANCE 차이
19. 항공기 유효거리 종류 더***
20. 활주로 공표거리 LDA 구간 , TODA 내용 , TOD ( 단발 , 쌍발, WET RUNWAY )
21. STOPWAY & CLEAR WAY &RUNWAY STRIP
22. 이착륙 무게에 따른 거리증가 ( 1000FT DA당 왕복엔진 , LOW THRUST HIGH THRUST )
23. 이착륙 퍼포먼스 다시 보기 ( 정풍 배풍 RUNWAY SLOPE 속도 고도 WET RUNWAY 등 )** RUNWAY SLOPE
24. 터빈엔진 디퓨져 압축기 종류 터빈엔진 그리기
25. 터보프롭 waste gate reduction gear
26. EPR***
27. stall 종류 elevator trim stall , secondary stall , deep stall ( t tail )
28. compressor stall 원인 compressor bleed valve
***29. prop AOA pitch angle blade angle
30. prop에 작용하는 힘 5가지 ****
31. fixed pitch constant pitch pilot valve flyweight 원심력 overspeed underspeed
32. lefft turning tendency 작용반작용 , 후류 항공기 전진속도 , 섭동성 tail wheel , P FACTOR 원인
33. flap 의 nose down moment 기전
34. blc 와 flap의 상관관계
35. fly by wire 조종압부여하는것
36. adverse yaw 기전
37. t tail 기전 v tail 장단점
38. slot 장점 3가지( drag 증가 없음 , nose down moment 없음 , 스톨 지연 )
39. eng oil 역할 , wet sump dry sump
40. 여압 시스템
41. 유압시스템 selector valve 유압 역할
42. alternator generator 차이 voltage regulator
43. 터보젯 프롭항공기 L/D MAX에서 얻는 퍼포먼스 차이점
44. 온도에 따른 터빈엔진 추력 감소 증가 이유 기전
45. over the top 조건
46. supplement oxygen ( 한국 , faa 91 , 121 )
47. 유도신호 ( 정지 , 급한정지 , 직진 , 우회전 , 좌회전 , 고임목 , 브레이크 , 엔진시동 , 엔진정지 , GPU )
48. TAKEOFF MINIMUM ( RVR로도 암기 )
49. 한국 RADIO FAIL ( RADAR 고도 )
***50. V2min , Vmbe density altitude , Vzf( NADP2 ) , Vfc ( STABILITY 최대속도 ) ,Vfs ( 4 st climb OEI )
51. 이슬점 기온 __F 이하 안개 구름
52. CDFA 시작 종료 지점
53. AHRS /DME DME IRU ____ft takeoff roll
54. runway centerline marking간격 , light , edge light , ALSF light
55. enhanced taxiway centerline marking 생긴거
***56. runway edge light 간격 , runway centerline light 간격 , centerline light 사용조건 ( RVR24 , RVR16 FOR TO )
***57. TDZL & centerline light 사용 활주로 무엇
***58. LAHSO LIGHT 등화 ( F WHITE ) , LAHSO MARKING , SIGN
59. stop bar light 점등 조건 ? ( RVR 12 )
60. RWSL 등화 설치 구역 및 조건
61. PLC 유지시간 ( 3 5 7 15 분 )
62. airport beacon water & 운용 조건 ( IFR , 1000 3 )
63. GPS 이용불가 접근 3가지 ( LOC LDA SDF )
64. TIMED APPROACH ( 타워운용 , 5NM간격 OM FAF 시간발부 )
**65. PAR( 10마일 , 20도 수직 7도 ), SAR 범위( 60마일 25000FT LETERAL GUIDE만) , NO GYRO APPROACH
66. parrelel approach , simultaneous converging approach ( 700-2 )
67. GLS 범위( 15nm 35도 , 20nm 10도 ) , MLS 범위 ( 40도 , 20NM ,20,000ft )
68. CVFP 특징 ( 통상 20NM )
69. loc 1 dot deflection , full deflection , GS 신호 위 아래 HZ sensitivity , false glideslope
70. OM MM 수평설치거리 , IM 설치 조건
71. CAT I 접근에서 IM 특징
***72. ALS 별로 그림 그릴줄 알기
73. non precision approach light , precision approach light
74. VASI PAPI 범위 , alignment of elements ( 3/4NM )
75. compass locator 범위 15 , NDB MH H HH 25 50 75
76. NDB 주파수190-535 , 190-1750 , ADF , VOR 약어
77. VOR 종류벌 커버리지****
78. DME 및 DME 주파수 960-1215
**79. PREDISPOSITION 4요소 ( scud running , loss of sa , peer pressure , operation insufficient fuel )
** 사고유발 5요소 ( thrill , driving record , disregard other opinion , disdain rule, impulsivity )
80. SA 5요소 ( flight , plane , pilot , environment , type of operation )
***81. 항공기 카테로기별 하중계수 ( n -1.52 - 3.8 , u - 1.76 - 4.4 a 3.0 - 6.0 )
82. Vg diagram 그리기
83. 영해의 범위
84. 관제권 범위 고도 ( 5nm 5000 )
85. 한국공역 B C D 범위 10000 , 5000 , 5000 , 1000 까지 , 1000-5000 , 5000-10000 범위 5 10 20 )
86. 한국 미국 CLASS B C D 속도제한 범위 고도 ( 2500ft agl 밑 4nm )
87. VFR , MVFR , IFR , LIFR 조건
88. 한국 VFR & 시계상의 양호한 기상상태 ( 상세히 알것 ) - 공역진입 vfr ceiling 1500ft , 시정 5km , 시계상 양호 ( 구름 수평 수직 )
89. isogonic line
90. ASI ALT VSI 작동 기전 내용물
91. 대권 소권 자오선 항정선
**92. SRT , H SRT 공식 , SRT BANK ANGLE 공식
93. CRITICAL HEIGHT , PITCH POINT , PROCEDURE ALTITUDE HEIGHT , RACE TRACK PROCEDURE , SPECIFIC GRAVITY
94. VOLMET
95. JEPPESEN CHART INDEX 10-1 같은거 해석
**96. RVR ICAO 보고 간격( 25m 50m 100m 400m까지 400-800m 800m초과), 측정장치 높이 ICAO FAA
97. 자이로, AI 오류 , HI 오류 및 오류수정 장치 , TURNCOORDINATOR 특징과 대체 가능 계기
98. TAS 구하는법 IAS 1000ft 2% 와 MACH x 6
99. TOD 계산
100. PITCH 1도당 얼마
101. 선회반경 공식
102. SRT , H SRT BANK 공식
103. LEAD DME 공식
104. LEAD RADIAL 공식
105. 자격증 미소지 정지 1차 2차 3차 1-3-9, 중대과실 정지 1차 2차 3차 3-6-15
106. 선회 3요소 저고도 고고도
107. 알베도
108. 임계마하수 WAVE DRAG TUCK UNDER DRAG RISE MACH TUCK 꼬리날개에서 작용까지 설명
109. aspect ratio 단점 , tapered ratio 장점 ,
110. 홀딩 뱅크앵글 제한
111. B C D 공역 , 속도제한 범위 고도
112 . CLASS C outer circle outer area inner circle 범위
113. L/D MAX 는 , coefficient of lift maximum 은 헷갈리지말기
114. 제트항공기 L/D MAX 얻는 것 , L/D MAX 이상에서 얻는것 , best climb angle , best climb rate 어디에 어떻게 작용
115. indicated stall speed 영향요소 아닌것 , AOA , AI DENSITY 이유 생각
116. vref + 10kt randing roll , HAT 100FT randing roll 헷갈리지 말기
117. ESHP is measure 1____2____
***118. CVR 보관기간 , MANIFEST 보관기간
***119. WINGLET 종류6가지
***120. AIRFOIL 종류 6가지 , 날개종류
121. directional stability 강화하는것5 , longitudinal stability 강화하는것4 , vertical stability 강화하는것5 , adverse yaw 방지 5, stall 방지 , 수막현상 예방 , stall speed 영향 3, 항력 줄이는것 , 양력늘리는것 ,
122. 고도에 증가에 따른 Vx Vy
**123. ATIS COVERAGE , MLS COVERAGE , PAR , SAR COVERAGE ( atis랑 같음 )
124. left tnedency precession 효과는 ___에만
125. jetstream 이란
126. RVSM 요구장비
127. HYPERVENTILATION 대표원인 대표증상 , CARBON MONOXIDE 대표 원인 대표증상
128. accelerate decelerate 시 , which type of illusion
129. SITUATIONAL AWARENESS 5요소 ( PLANE , PILOT, PASSENGER , ENVIRONMENT, TYPE OF OPERATIONS )
130. 터뷸런스 4강도 , 세기 , thunderstorm 강도 세기 , lightning 강도 세기 , icing 4강도 세기 , 강수 현상 4강도 ,
131. UUA UA , SPECI 발부 조건 , AIRMET SIGMET CONVECTIVE SIGMET
132. calm wind 조건 정확하게 icao faa
132. PROB 조건 1___2___
133. ICING CONDITION 알수있는 기상전문 3가지
134. horizontal windshear ___nm 당 __kt , CAT __nm 당 __kt
135. ballast fuel 이란
136. overbanking tendency 이유
***137. snowtam 활주로보고 단계 및 상태 / braking action 단계
138. runway strip 착륙대
139. 하늘의 자유
140. stall speed 영향 3요소
141. SLOP
142. ICAO FAA 써클링 접근속도 반경
143. cross wind component 공식 , wind correction angle 공식
144. 한국 시계비행 조건 , 공역진입 시계비행 조건 ( 1500FT , 5KM )
145. 제트항공기 specific range , specific fuel ( 해수면과 비교 % ) 40000FT 150% , TROPOPAUSE 80%
146. ILS CATEGORY
147. WINDSHEAR 잘 발생8(gust front에서도+ 전선별 WINDSHEAR (gust front에서도, SEVERE WEINDSHER
* 전선면 바람차이 20KT , 전선온도차이 5도 , 온난전선 , TS , TEMPERATURE INVERSION , TROPOPAUSE , JETSTREAM , 온난전선 통과 전 6시간, 한랭전선 통과 후 3시간 전 윈드쉬어
148. cumulonimbus mamma 형성되는 곳 2개 ( ANVIL CLOUD , SEVERE TS )
149. bow echo
150. micro burst windshear 관측장비 , microburst 예상되는 강수현상
151. elevator illusion , false horizon , inversion illusion , ground illusion 7가지
152. RVRU RVR D RVR N , RETSRA 의미
153. METAR에서 P0101 의미
154. SPECI 발부 조건 , METAR 인천공항 ISSUE VALID , METAR CALM WIND 어케표시
155. METAR 99노트 이상 어케표시
156. //(일기종류 X ) , ///(관측시설보다 CEILING LOW ) , ////(시정관측 X ) , =(종료 ) 의미
157. PO , GS , GR , BL , DR , MI 붙는 일기현상과 MI 특징
158. TAF 구름 발부 종류 , TAF 유효시간 , TX , TN
159. BECMG , TEMPO ,FM, PROB , TAF 500000 TURB 600000ICING의미
160. PIREP UUA 조건
161. AIRMET , SIGMET , CONV SIGMET , convective outlook 정보
162 . FA 차트 목록별 유효 ( synopsis , wx , outlook )
163. SIG WX PROGNOSTIC CHART 별 특징
164. CAT 생성지역 4( JETSTREAM , CIRRUS , STANDING LENTICULAR CLOUD , TS 바깥쪽 )
upper trough of the polar side of jetstream , 40kt 이상의 mountain wind , isotach 60nm이내에 형성 , outside of convective cloud , 1000ft 당 5kt 차이 150nm에 40kt 차이
threshold windspeed in jetstream for CAT = 110KT
165. AOA , angle of incident
166. 동시접근 종류 활주로거리 converging approach 웨더조건
167. CLEAR , RIME , MIXED 생성 온도 ( 0~ - 10도 , -10 ~ - 20도 , -10 ~ 15도 )
168. 터빈엔진 항공기 패턴고도 다른 공역 , 상승 빠르게 어디까지 ,4
169. 무인도 , pyrotechnic device , over water , life preserver with emergency locating lights
170. clear air turbulence avoidance system 3요소 ( appropriate initial recurrent training , a dedicated planning /dispatch function , fully supported operational implementation of a PIREP
171. tropopause 큰 특징 : abrubt change temperature lapse rate
172. 제트스트림 위치 : in a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gratients are located
173. ILS CAT II 접근 요구시설 LOC , GS , MARKER BEACON , RVR , HIRL , TDZL , RCLS
174. abbreviated departure clearance
핵심은 destination airport and 나머지 ( sid dp sq code altitude , frequency ) , and as filed 핵심
175. vfr on top 추가사항 - traffic advisory only 제공
176. uncontrolled airport 에서는 landing 혹은 freq change 해야 radar service terminate
177. CLASS B 추가사항 - large turbine jet 은 class B floor 위로 항상 항행
178. METAR 4/000 은 SNOW INCH로 표현 , 40000 그룹은 24 시간 MAX MIN TEMP
179. clear calm night light wind 에 1. temperature inversion 2. radiation fog 3. frost ( temp below freezing , dewpoint below freezing )
CAT II 자격조건 1___ 2___
100HR비행시간 , 6개월 이내 6번 CAT I 접근 3번은 COUPLED APPROACH 가능 CAT II 제한 해제 조건
PIC 100HR 미만시 MINIMUM 1___2___
DH 100FT , VIS 1/2SM 증가
automation 장점 1_____
OFFER NEW CAPABILITIES AND SIMPLIFY THE BASIC FLIYING TASK
automation 단점 1____2____
CREATE LARGE ERROR , HIGH WORK LOAD IN TERMINAL AREA
an airport approved by administrator for use by a certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport used by the certificate holder is not available
PROVISIONAL AIRPORT
____ is directly responsible for and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft
PIC each pic who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within ______ to the manager of that ATC
48HR when conducting VOR operation check , must be record 1___ 2___ 3___ 4___
DATE , PLACE , BEARING ERROR , SIGNATURE
failure to a component which would adversely affect the performance , and which whould require replacement
SUBSTANTIAL DAMAGE
no person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has 1____ 2__
FILE IFR PLAN , IFR CLEARANCE
in case of a radar vector to a final appraoch course or fix for which the approach procedure specifies ____ , no pilot may take a procedure turn unless cleared by ATC
NO PT RVR 40 , RVR 32 , RVR 16
3/4 , 5/8 , 1/4 pic of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practicable to ATC to malfunction 1____ 2___ 3___
navaid , communication , approach for flight at or above ____ , DME or RNAV is required if navigating VORS
FL 240 no person may operate an aircraft at and above _____ excluding the airspace at and below 2,500ft AGL , unless that aircraft is equipped with an _______
10,000FT MSL , MODE C TRANSPONDER
for approval of ETOPS beyond ____ min or operations in the north and south polar area , required aeronautical data must include facilities at the airport or in the immediate area that are sufficient to protect the passengers from the elements and see to there welfare
180MIN when filing an alternate using the _____ ETOPS rule , the alternate airport must have rescue and fireflighting services (RFFS) that meet the ICAO category __ standard, or higher
180min , ICAO 4 if the required equipment and personnel are not available at the airport , ___ response time from local fire fighting assets in adequate if the local assets can be notofied while the diverting airplane is en route
30MIN
beyond 180 ETOPS rule , the alternate airport must have ____ that meet the ICAO __ category and the aircraft must remain within ETOPS authorized diversion time from an airport that has RFFS ICAO catogory ___
RFFS , ICAO CATEGORY 4 , ICAO CATEGORY 7
a runway ____ is considered in computing take off weight limitations for turbine engine powered transport airplanes certificated after SEP , 30 , 1958
CLEAR WAY
___% of dry runway length is required for a turbojet - powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at ETA
115%
a cargo bin must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats , mutifly by ____ , using the combined weight of the bin
1.15
the airplane has seating capacity of more than 99 passenger capacity , must have ___ megaphone
2 MEGAPHONE
61-99 1
100-199 2
200 OR MORE 3
emergency lights must be turned on 1___ 2___ 3___
TAXI , TAKEOFF , LANDING
escape sliding system must be armed 1___ 2___ 3___
TAXI TAKEOFF LANDING
an air carrier airplane must have an operating ____ if it has a seating capacity more than ____
PUBLIC ADRESSING SYSTEM AND CREWMEMBER INTERPHONE SYSTEM , 19
survival kit must be attached each required lift raft when ____
OVER WATER OPERATION
life preserver equipped with a _____ must be provided for each person
SURVIVAL LOCATOR LIGHT
for the purpose of testing a flight data recoreder , a total of ___ of the _______ data may be erased
1HR , OLDEST
air carrier flight under vfr , ifr over the top must have _______
TWO INDEPENDENT VOR
whenever VOR navigation , the aircraft must be equipped 1____ 2____
DME , RNAV
the airplane flying over uninhabited terrain must have 1____ 2____ 3____
SUITABLE PYROTECHNIC SIGNALING DEVICE, SURVIVAL KIT FOR EACH OCCUPANT , APPROVED EMERGENCY LOCATOR
an air carrier may dispatch an aircraft with inoperative airborne radar only ______
DAY VFR
cockpit voice recorders in passenger carrying airplane may be erases except ____
LAST 30 MIN
cockpit voice recorder must be operated from ______ to ______
BEFORE ENGINE START CHECKLIST , FINAL CHECKLIST
when is crew monitoring is essential ?
EVERY PHASE OF FLIGHT BUT ESPECIALLY APPROACH AND LANDING FOR PREVENTING CFIT
air carriers must give instruction on hypoxia , decompression to each crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above _____
FL250
crewmember must actually operate the airplane emergency equipment once every ______
24 CALENDER MONTH
a required pilot flight crewmember who has not made 3 t/o 3 l/d within preceding 90days must reestabilish recency of experience by performing 1_____ 2_____ 3____
AT LEAST ONE CRITICAL ENGINE FAIL TAKEE OFF , AT LEAST ONE LOWEST ILS MINIMUM APPROACH , AT LEAST ONE FULL STOP LANDING
a line check for the pilot in command is required each _____ in one of the types of airplane
12 CALENDER MONTH
PIC must have completed either a proficiency check or simulator training within preceding _____
other tha pic must have completed within preceding _______
6 CALENDER MONTH , 24 CALENDER MONTH
when intoxicate person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft , a writtne report concerning the incident to the FAA within ____
5day
no person may take off an airplane from an airport that is not listed in the operations specifications unless
within US for take off 800-2 900 - 1 1/2 1000- 1
outside US for takeoff 800-2 900 1 1/2 1000-1 damage or failure that adversely affects the structural strength , performance , or flight characteristics of an aircraft and that would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component
SUBSTANTIAL DAMAGE
INCREASE TAKEOFF DISTANCE . ATTEMPTING TO FORCE THE AIRCRAFT INTO THE AIR BEFORE IT HAS SUFFICIENT AIRSPEED TO FLY MAY RESULT IN THE AIRCRAFT SETTLEING BACK TO THE RUNWAY
PREMATURE ROTATION
A PERSON ASSIGNED TO PERFORM DUTY IN AN AIRCRAFT DURING FIGHT TIME
CREWMEMBER WITH RESPECT TO A FLIGHT , THE EXERCISE OF AUTHORITY OVER INITIATING , CONDUCTING , TERMINTING A FLIGHT
OPERATIONAL CONTROL
AN AREA BEYOND THE TAKEOFF RUNWAY , NO LESS WIDE THAN THE RUNWAY AND CENTERED UPON THE EXTENDED CERTERLINE OF THE RUNWAY, ABLE TO SUPPORT THE AIRCRAFT DURING AN ABORTED TAKEOFF WITHOUT CAUSING STRUCTURAL DAMAGE TO TEH AIRPLANE
STOP WAY
DESIGNED CRUSING SPEED
VC
THE SPEED AT WHICH THE CRITICAL ENGINE IS ASSUMED TO FAIL DURING TAKEOFF
Vef
THE MAXIMUM SPEED IN THE TAKEOFF AT WHICH THE PILOT MUST TAKE THE FIRST ACTION TO STOP THE AIRPLANE WITHIN ASD
V1
TAKEOFF SAFETY SPEED
V2
the stalling speed , minimum steady flight speed , at which the airplane is controllable
Vs
minimum steady flight speed , stall speed , in a landing configuration
Vso
maximum operating limit speed for an airplane
Vmo / Mmo
minimum unstick speed
Vmu
some fixed percentage of the stall speed or minimum control speed for the aircraft in the landing configuration
LANDING SPEED
a condition in which a flight crew member has been in a theater for 72 hours or has been given at least 36hr free from duty
ACCLIMATED
a defined duty period during which a flight crew member is required by a certificate holder to be at an airport for a possible assignment
AIRPORT/STANBY RESERVE
a flight crew that has more than the minimum number of flight crew members required by the airplane type certificate to operate the aircrast to allow a flightcrew member to be replaced by another qualified flightcrew member for in flight rest
AUGMENTED FLIGHTCREW
a 24hour period from 0000 through 2359 using UTC
CALENDAR DAY
a period that begin when a flight crew member is required to report for duty with the intention of conducting a flight , a series of flight , positioning or ferrying flights , and ends when aircraft is parked after the last flight and there is no intention for further aircraft movement by the same flight crew member.
FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD
10hours of rest that encompassed 0100- 0700 at the flight crew home base
PHYSIOLOGICAL NIGHT`S REST
a duty period during which a certificate holder requires a flight crew member on short call reserve to be available to receive an assignment for a flight duty period
RESERVE AVAILABILITY PERIOD
a continous period determined prospectively during which the flight crew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder
REST PERIOD
a temperature controlled facility with sound mitigation and the ability to control light that provides a flight crew member with teh ability to sleep in a bed
SUITABLE ACCOMODATION
a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew memeber`s flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degree longitude
THEATER a period of maximum sleepiness that occure between 0159-0559 during physiological night
WINDOW OF CIRCADIAN LOW
training required for a flight crew member who has not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group
INITIAL TRAINING
required for a crewmember who has qualified and served as second in command or flight engineer on a particular airplane type before he served as pilot in command or second in command
UPGRADING TRAINING
required for a crewmember or dispatcher who has qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group
TRANSITION TRAINING
include taxi , takeoff , landing and all other operations conducted below 10,000ft MSL excluding cruise flight
CRITICAL PHASE OF FLIGHT
allow to pilot to control an airplane`s movement around its lateral , longitudinal , vertical axes
PRIMARY FLIGHT CONTROL SURFACE
used on some transport aircraft as a manual backup to flight controls that are normally operated hydraulically
CONTROL TAB
modifies the downward tail load for various airspeed in flight , reducing or eliminating flight control pressure
ELEVATOR TRIM TAB , RUDDER TRIM TAB , AILERON TRIM TAB
aids the pilot in moving the primary control surface and holding it in the desired position
SERVO TAB
moves in same direction as the primary flight control surface
ANTI-SERVO TAB
increase lift at low speed , allowing lower landing and takeoff speed
HIGH LIFT DEVICE increase the camber of the wing , which delays a stall to a higher angle of attack. the increased camber prevents airflow separation at low speed
LEADING EDGE FLAP
direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing and delay airflow separation to some higher angle of attack
LEADING EDGE SLAT AND SLOT
reduce lift and allow an airplane to descend without increasing airspeed
FLIGHT SPOILER
reduce lift from the wings upon landing or in a rejected takeoff , which increases the weight of the aircraft on the landing gear
GROUND SPOILER
secondary flight control system that are installed on the inboard section of the wing along the trailing edge
most common high lift device used on aircraft
FLAP
___ flap that the effect of the camber on the chord causes significant increase in CLmax and increse drag greatly
PLAIN FLAP
produces slightly greater change in CLmax than the plain flap , but it produces a much larger change in drag , allowing for a steeper landing approach over obstacles
SPLIT FLAP
similar to the plain flap but has a gap between the main section and the flap leading edge. high energy air from the lower surface is ducted to the flap`s upper surface, which allows for a higher lift coefficient than the plain or split flaps along with lower drag
SLOTTED FLAP
the flap segments are moved along tracks which increase the chord along with wing area
FOWLER FLAP
while in ground effect , an airplane needs a lower angle of attack to produce the same lift as when out of ground effect
angle of attack controls the airplane`s
1. LIFT 2. DRAG 3. AIRSPEED
L/Dmax is unaffected by
ITS WEIGHT
so same glide range but different speed .but glide speed is varies with its weight steady level flight , load factor doubled , CL ___ , induced drag ____
2배 , 4배
high lift coefficient provides very high induced drag
( 제곱으로 증가 감소 )
load factor fomula
1/ COS( BANK ANGLE )
reduce drag caused by supersonic airflow over portions of the wing, delays the onset divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speed
WING-MOUNTED VOLTEX GENERATOR
indicated stall speed affected by
1. BANK 2. WEIGHT 3. LOAD FACTOR 4. POWER BUT NOT AOA
the devices that sense pressure distribution on the wing provide reliable indications of an impending stall
1. ANGLE OF ATTACK INDICATOR 2. STALL WARNING HORN
the lift divided by total weight
LOAD FACTOR
it is published and shown by a red radial line on the airspeed indicator
Vne
the centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal component of lift in
SKIDDING TURN
maximum turning capacity
1. maximum lift capacity( aerodynamic ) 2. thrust limits 3. structural strength limit
the increase in specific range with altitude of the turbojet engine can be attributed to
1. GREATER TAS AS SAME THRUST
2. LOWER INLET TEMPERATURE WHICH REDUCEDS THE SPECIFIC FUEL CONSUMPTION
3. RPM INCREASE WHICH REDUCED THE SPECIFIC FUEL CONSUMPTION
**the airplane is operated to maintain the recommended long lange cruise condition throughout the flight
CRUISE CONTROL
stall should be never practiced with
1. OEI 2. THRUST IDLE
on the airspeed indicator on a light twin engine airplane represents the maximum single-engine rate of climb at gross weight
BLUE RADIAL
when an engine fails , climb performance is reduced by
80-90%
the ball of the slip-skid indicator may be deflected outside of its reference lines when operating on a single engine in a light twin at any speed above
Vmc
slush on the runway has the effect of reducing ___ speed
V1 or critical engine failure speed
the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light twin is to accelerate to an airspeed slight above ___ and then lift off and climb at _____
Vmc , Vy
use ____ if engine failure occurs at an altitude above the single engine ceiling
Vyse
the highest temperature in a turbojet engine is found at ______
TIT , TURBINE WHEEL
most critical conditions of takeoff performancea are 1 2 3 4
1. HIGH GROSS WEIGHT 2. HIGH DA 3. HIGH TEMP 3. UNFAVORED WIND
the most restriction to the opertion of turbojet or turboprop engines is limiting by
EGT
___ is a measure of shaft horsepower and jet thrust
ESHP( equivalent shaft horse power )
minimum specific fuel consumption of turboprop engines is usually available above
FL250
____ is characterized by intermittent bang as back fire and flow reversal take place
TRANSIENT COMPRESSOR STALL
____ is characterized by strong vibration and a loud roar
STEADY CONTINOUS FLOW REVERSAL COMPRESSOR STALL
____ produces the first evidence of local sonic flow , highes speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing
CRITICAL MACH NUMBER
____ is the result of shock - induced separation of air flow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft
MACH TUCK
____ are buffet , trim and stability changes , control effectiveness
DRAG RISE , DRAG DIVERGENCE and then will TUCK UNDER
should be applied immediately after ground contact , as soon as possible after touchdown , to reduce landing distance of turbojet or turboprop
REVERSE THRUST
**the inherent ability of an abject , after its equilibrium is disturbed , to return to its original position.
STABILITY
***the initial tendency that the airplane displays after its euilibrium is disturbed
STATIC STABILITY
ball inside a round bowl. return to its original position
POSITIVE STATIC STABILITY
ball on a flat plane . it shows no tendency to return to its original position
NEUTRAL STATIC STABILITY
ball on a reverted round ball . it continue to move in the direction of the applied force
NEGATIVE STATIC STABILITY
**overall tendency that the airplane displays after its equilibrium is disturbed.
DYNAMIC STABILITY
oscillations set up by a statically stable airplane , enable the oscillation to become smaller and smaller
POSITIVE DYNAMIC STABILITY
oscillation remains unchanged
NEUTRAL DYNAMIC STABILITY
oscillations tends to increase
NEGATIVE DYNAMIC STABILITY
under what conditions might a pilot expect the possibility of hydroplaning
WET RUNWAY THAT IS COVERED IN RUBBER FROM PREVIOUS LANINDING
occurs when a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway
VISCOUS HYDROPLANING
occurs when the groundspeed is at least 8.73 x 루트 PSI
DYNAMIC HYDROPLANING
occurs when an airplane`s tires are effectively held off the smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction
REVERTED RUBBER HYDROPLANING
_____ used for deicing are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only
FPD FLUID , FREEZING POINT DEPRESSANT FLUID
_____ is airspeed corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure
TAS **a jet powered airplane the angle of attack at stall
POWER ON OFF SAME
how can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil
CHANGE RELATIVE WIND
aiplane stall warning device must sense1. ______2.____
RELATIVE WIND , PRESSURE DISTRIBUTION
PFD airspeed indications are dramatically different , it is most likely a blockage in the pitot line of ____
ADC air data computer in class b , below ____ within ____ speed restriction ____
2,500FT AGL , 4NM , 250KT
in class c , d , below ___ within ___ speed restriction ____
2,500FT , 4NM , 200KT
mandatory instruction sign has ____ inscription on a ____ background
WHITE , RED
****______ at the intersection of taxiway and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway
HOLD LINE MARKING **destination sign have ____ inscription on ____ back ground indicating destinations on the airport
BLACK , YELLOW **_____ which faces the runway and is visible to the pilot , indicates a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway
RUNWAY BOUNDARY SIGN
***____ has a graphic depiction of the ILS pavement holding position marking
ILS CRITICAL AREA BOUNDARY SIGN
**ILS critical area hold sign has 1____2____ letter
RED , WHITE
**ILS critical area boundary sign has 1___2____
YELLOW , BLACK
the signs that indicate distance remaining in increments of 1,000ft
RUNWAY DISTANCE REMAINING MARKING
**white inscription and red background and identify paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited
NO ENTRY SIGN
***the sign have black diagonal stripes on yellow backgrounds and indicate that a taxiway does not countinue beyond the indicated point
TAXIWAY ENDING MARKER
____ is two row s of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline
TDZL
two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline
TOUCHDOWN ZONE LIGHT
provide visual guidance to person exiting the runway
TAXIWAY LEAD OFF LIGHTS , TAXIWAY CENTERLINE LEAD- OFF LIGHTS the identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting . synchronized flashing lights placed laterally at each side of the runway threshold
REIL ( RUNWAY END IDENTIFIER LIGHTS )
fully automated system that provides runway status information to pilots and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter , cross , take off from or land on a runway
RWSL RUNWAY STATUS LIGHT SYSTEM
_____ provides a normal glide angle for both high and low flight dedck aircraft
3 BAR VASI
_____ consists of a row of four lights perpendicular to the runway red and white
PAPI
____ consists of one light projector with tow color red and white
PULSATING VASI
_____ desseminates time-critical aeronautical information that either is of a temporary nature or is not sufficiently known in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or on other operational publications.
NOTAM
what is meant by the term FAROS
FLASHING PAPI
1___ 2___ can be only directly observed during flight and then report by A PIREP
TURBULENCE , ICING
*____ provide weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight , intended route of flight , and altitude
FSS FLGIHT SERVICE STATION
___ is a continous broadcast over selected ___ of 1___ 2___ 3___ 4___ 5___
HIWAS , SELECTED VOR , AIRMET , SIGMET , CONVECTIVE SIGMET , AWW , CWA
IN wind and temperature aloft chart when the wind speed is less than __ , the forecast is coded ____ , which means _____
5KT , 9900 , LIGHT AND VARIABLE
wind is not forecast below _____ , temperature is not forcast below ____ , temperature plus minus indication is omitted above _____
1500FT AGL , 3000FT AGL , FL 240
airport or primary runway closure changes in the status of navaid , ils , radar service availability
other information essential to planned , en route , terminal or landing operations , taxy way , apron , ramp area , rotating beacon
NOTAM D
issued by flight data center and contaion instrument apporoach procedure and temporary flight restrictions
NOTAM FDC
reduce total notam volume by pointing notam d , notam fdc
POINTER NOTAM
reference military airport and navaids and are rarely of any interest to civilian pilot
MILITARY NOTAM
issued when special activity airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule
SAA NOTAM issued every 28days and is an integral part of the notam system once the notam is published in the ____ , the notam is not provided unless requested . expected to remain effect for an exteded period
NTAP NOTICE TO AIRMEN PUBLICATION
___ includes landing and holding short of an intersecting runway , an interesting taxiway , or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxyway
LAHSO
is a high update-rate radar surveillance system , certified to provide simultaneous independent approaches to closely spaced parallel runways
a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways
PRM APPROACH
____ flight plan are limited to stopover period of ___ or less
STOPOVER , 1HR
ifr flight plans should be filed at least ____ , prior to departure and clearance requested not more than ____
30MIN , 10MIN
RNAV route at or above ____ , fixes and turning point should be describe 1____ 2____
FL390 , LONGITUDE LATITUDE
RNAV route below _____ , fixes and turning point should be describe 1____2____
RADIAL , DISTANCE OF NAVIAID
IFR flight plan will be canceled by ATC ______
UPON LANDING
the fix or point which an aircraft is cleared when issued by ATC
CLEARANCE LIMIT
an IFR flight plan may only be canceled by flightcrew when _____
VMC WITHOUT CLASS A
SID are depicted in plan views as ____ provided for navigational guidance or ____ with courses the pilot is responsible to follow
VECTORS , PILOT NAV
____ simplifies clearance delivery porcedure
STAR
**____ require pilots to request IFR clearance 10min or less prior to taxi and then request taxi clearance from ground control
PRE-TAXI CLEARANCE
specification in a clearance is used when a pilot is operating from an uncontrolled airport
VOID TIME
CLEARED AS FILED
1. destination airport
2. en route altitude
3. sid
4. transponder code
5. departure frequency
runway release time assigned to an aircraft included in traffic management programs. aircraft are expected to depart no earlier than 5 min before and no later than 5 min later
EDCT
a procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume , weather , or a need to issue further instructions
HOLD FOR RELEASE requires the pilot to contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing
GATE HOLD a pilot should communicate his or her position on the airport when ready for takeoff from _____
RUNWAY INTERSECTION
____ should be transmitting continuously with altitude reporting while _____
ASDE-X , AIRPORT SURFACE
____ is a location on an airport movement area with a history or potential riks of collision or runway incursion.
HOT SPOT ____ is a direcvtive isuued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action
ATC INSTRUCTION
pilot should listen for the key work 1____ 2___ as they relate to operations near taxiway intersections with runways or other taxiways.
HOLD SHORT , CROSS
_____ has replaced taxi into position and hold
LINE UP AND WAIT *____ is an adivisory to ATC indicating an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur
MINIMUM FUEL
if the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing , the pilot should_______
DECLARE EMERGENCY FUEL
ATC issues ______ if the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle
SAFETY ALERT
______ is terminated while the airplane is vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport when _____ , _____ whichever occur first
RADAR SERVICE , LANDING , FREQUENCY CHANGE
____ may be initiated by ATC , ____ may be initiated only by _____
VISUAL APPROACH , CONTACT APPROACH , PILOT
____ minimal to non existent for the wheel braking effort applied
_____deceleration is significantly reduced for the wheel braking effort applied
_____deceleration is noticeably reduced for the wheel braking effort applied
_____deceleration is normal for the wheel braking effort applied.
NIL , POOR , MEDIUM , GOOD what is limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan ?
ENTIRE ROUTE WITHIN RADAR ENVIRONMENT
if ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft , what action must the pilot take ?
ADVISE THE SPEED WILL BE USED
what minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency
ANYTIME THE PILOT IS DOUBTFUL OF A CONDITION THAT COULD ADVERSELY AFFECT FLIGHT SAFETY when may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach
ANYTIME at pilot discretion
you should nitify ATC on the initial contact that you have received ________
ATIS ALPHABET CODE
directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action
ATC INSTRUCTION
an off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with 1,000ft buffer in non mountainous area and a 2,00ft buffer in mountainous area within US
OROCA
oroca are intended primarily as a pilot tool for 1_____ 2_____
EMERGENCY , SITUATIONAL AWARENESS
navigation computer that provides position by signals from self- contained gyros - accelerometers
INS
an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if ______
NAVAIDS USED FOR THE FINAL APPROACH ARE UNMONITORED
_____ occurs when accumulated static electricity is discharged from the extreamities of aircraft
P-STATIC
STABILIZED APPROACH
1,000FT AGL 까지 1. FULLY CONFIGURATION 2. STEADY SPEED
3. NO MORE THAN 1,000FPM DESCENT
4. HALF DEFLECTION
VISUAL APPROACH OR STRAIGHT - IN APPROACH IN VFR 에서는 TDZE 500FT AGL 까지 STABILIZED APPROACH 수립
CIRCLING APPROACH는 1. MDA 2. ARP 중 낮은 고도 500FT AGL 까지 STABILIZED APPROACH 수립
stabilized approach helps the pilot recognize ______ when abnormal indications existt during the approach
WIND SHEAR
ignore slant range error if the airplane is ____ from the ground facility for each _____ft
1NM , 1000FT
when VORs are undergoing maintenance , 1______2_____
not transmission , T-E-S-T signal stransmit
**rotates so that the heading is shown under the index at the top of the instrument
THE AZIMUTH CARD **the VOR(OBS) indicator
THE COURSE INDICATING ARROW
combination of the heading indicator and the VOR/ILS indicator
HSI HORIZONTAL SITUATION INDICATOR
**indicates above or below the glide slope , which is the longer centerline
GLIDE SLOPE DEVIATION POINTER
**comes out wheen reliable signals are not recieved by the glide slope receiver
GLIDE SLOPE WARNING FLAG
used to coordinate the heading indicator
HEADING SET KNOB
shows the current heading
LUBBER LINE indicates the direction you would have to turn to intercept the desired radial if you were on the approximate heading of the OBS selection
COURSE DEVIATION BAR a fixed symbol that shows the airplane relative to the selected course as though you were above the airplane looking down
THE AIRPLANE SYMBOL
shows the reciprocal of the OBS heading
THE TAIL OF THE COURSE INDICATING ARROW
used to adjust the OBS
THE COURSE SETTING KNOB
in holding pattern , using a flight director system , the rate of turn or bank angle should be 1_____ 2____ , _____
STANDARD RATE OF BANK , 25도 뱅크 , whichever less
when arcing left on a DME arc where there is a left crosswind component , the bearing pointer should be ________
AHEAD OF LEFT 90
if there is penetration of the obstacle identification surface , the published visibility for the ILS approach equipped with MALSR , can be no lower than ______
3/4 SM
when MALSR is inoperative , the approach minimum _________
INCREASE 1/2 SM OR RVR24
_____ is marked on the profile view of the IAP with a BOLD V
VDP
____ on the profile view of the IAP is indicated by the end of the solid line
MAP
**____ on a victor airway between two VORTAC stations is the midpoint or is indicated by ____
COP , ㄱㄴ
a flag with an X mark is ________
MCA
if there is no altitude under the intersection name , _____
THE MCA IS MEA
a series of dots taht overlay an airway on the en route chart means that the airway penetrates 1____2_____
RESTRICTED AREA , PROHIBITED AREA
**the amount that a runway threshold is displaced is in the ______ of the chart supplement
RUNWAY DATA
**the maximum gross weight of any particular type of aircraft on a given runway will be included in the ______ section of the chart supplement
AIRPORT REMARKS
_____ is a fully configurable airport weather system that provides continuous , real time information and reports on airport weather conditions.
AWOS
_____ is similiar to the AWOS but provides the data necessary to generate weather forecasts
ASOS
**on the ______, A LF/MF oceanic route is depicted by _______line
LOW ENROUTE CHART , DARK BROWN
ils provides 1____ 2____ 3____
GUIDANCE INFORMATION , RANGE INFORMATION , VISUAL INFORMATION
_____ , when used for the outer marker and middle marker of an ILS , transmit tow-letter identification groups
the outer compass locator transmits ________
FIRST TWO LETTERS OF THE LOCALIZER IDENTIFICATION GROUP
the middle compass locator transmits ______
LAST TWO LETTERS OF THE LOCALIZER IDENTIFICATION GROUP
a back course marker , where installed , is indicatied by _______ and ______light
A SERIES OF TWO DOT COMBINATION , WHITE
if the middle marker for a category I ILS approach is in operative , ______
NO EFFECT
***the category II approach to DH below 150ft , requires 1___ 2___ 3___4____
TDZL , RCLS , RVR , HIRL
**minimum equipment to execute an ILS approach is 1____2____
LOCALIZER , GLIDE SLOPE
if there is penetration of obstacle identification surface , the published visibility for the ILS approach can be _____
NO LOWER THAN 3/4 ( RVR40 )
to conduct an LPV approach , the aircraft must be equipped with an approach - certified system with ___RNP
0.3 RNP
the GPS approach overlay program permits pilots to use GPS avionics when IFR for flying existing IAPs , except 1____2__3___
SDF, LDA , LOC
**_____ is published on a GPS approach , it will ______
VDP , not included waypoint
_____ is an advisory to pilots indicating that the expected level of WASS service may not be available
UNRELBL ( UNRELIABLE )
____ is an advisory to pilots indicating that satellite signals are not available
UNAVBL ( UNAVAILABLE )
____ provides precision navigation guidance for exact alignment and descent of aircraft on approach to a runway . it provides differential augmentation to the GNSS
GLS
**___ is an ILS look- alike system from the pilot perspective.
LAAS
**GBAS PROVIDES PRECISION NAVIGATION GUIDANCE FOR ____
GLS APPROACH
**the weight of the airplane , including the crew , ready for flight but without payload and fuel
BOW basic operating weight , SOW standart operating weight 라고도 한다. BEW랑 ZFW헷갈리지 말것
mean aerodynamic chord. relates to swept wing
MAC 후퇴익날개에서 평균 사위선을 구해 앞전으로부터 의 위치를 %로 표현한것.
**sweptwing airplanes express CG as a ______ as well as distance in inches from a datum
MAC
it indicates the thrust being developed by the engine ; it is the pressure differential between the engine inlet and the turbine exhaust
EPR ENGINE PRESSURE RATIO
elongated area of low pressure
TROUGH
bad weather is associated with areas of _______
LOW PRESSURE
surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone at _____ front
STATIONARY FRONT
______ cause rapid movement of surface front
UPPER WIND BLOWING ACROSS THE FRONT
**frontal wave and low pressure area usually form along 1______ 2_____
SMALL SLOW MOVING CONT FRONT , STATIONARY FRONT
shallow frontal surface tend to give 1______ 2_____
EXTENSIVE CLOUDINESS , LARGE AREA PRECIPITATION
high pressure area
ANTI CYCLONE
the process in which the adjacent air massed modify equalize and the front dissipates
FRONTOLYSIS
there is a dew point difference on each side of a ______
DRY LINE
storm gust front move far ahead of ____mile of precipitation
15MILE
near the surface , _____ causes the wind to flow across isobars and circulate counterclockwise into a low pressure area due to decrease 1_____ 2_____
SURFACE FRICTION , WIND SPEED , COLIORIS FORCE
**high cloud is from _____ to _____
16500 TO 45000FT AGL
mid cloud is from _____ to _____
6500 TO 20000FTAGL
low cloud is from _____ to ______
SFC TO 6500 AGL
cloud with extensive vertical development ( such as towering cumulus and cumulonumbus ) from ______ to above ______
1000FT AGL , 10,000FT
if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity , the minimum thickness of the cloud is ____ft
4,000FT
**major cause of cloud formation
EXPANSION COOLING
lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave
ROTOR CLOUD
clouds that form in the rising branches of mountain waves and occupy the crests of the waves
STANDING LENTICULAR CLOUDS
unstable air favors convection. ____(means heap) forms in a convective updraft , build upward , and is associated with turbulence
CUMULUS FORM
forms in a convective updraft , build upward , and is associated with turbulence
CUMULUS
**which type of storms are most likely to produce funnel cloud and tornado 1____ 2___
SQUALL LINE THUNDERSTORM , COLD FRONT
when flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm , the cloud should be overflown by at _____ per 10kt
1000FT PER 10 KT
shear turbulence may be expected usually within _____ of severe turbulence
20MILES
temperature inversion aloft 에서는 , 지표에선 1. ice pallet , 공중에선 freezing rain 현상이 있다.
**which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present ?
FREEZING RAIN
***freezing drizzle often forms by the _______
COLLISION-COALESCENCE PROCESS
what determines how icing is reported on a PIREP
RATE OF ACCUMULATION
**____ are cleared or dispersed by wind or the movement of air . ____ occurs in stable air , is usually only few thousand thick , but sometimes may extend as high as ______ ft
HAZE , HAZE, 15,0000FT
**_______ is poor above a haze layer
DOWNWARD VISIBILITY
______ is often hazardous if haze is present
LANDING INTO THE SUN
the result of moist , stable air being moved by wind over gradually rising ground
UPSLOPE FOG
results from relatively warmer rain or drizzle falling through cooler air
PRECIPITATION - INDUCED FOG
restricted to land because water surfaces coll little from radiation cooling. it is common in the morning when the ground is wet and the sky is clear
RADIATION FOG
occurs in cold weather when the temperature is far below freezing and water vapor forms directly into ice crystals. usually -25F or cooler
ICE FOG
**the condition favorable for the formation of arctic fog and radiation fog are the same , except that arctic fog forms at usually ____F or colder
- 25F
The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluids is to ensure that the freeze point of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by at least ____ F
20F
minimum surface temperature usually when ______
AFTER SUNRISE
the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed
ADIABATIC HEATING OR COOLING
when saturated air moves downhill , its temperature increases at a slower rate than dry air because _________
VAPORIZATION USES HEAT
**______ , one common finds a temperature inversion , because ________
STRATOSPHERE , OZONE LAYER
***an inversion aloft with freezing temperature below can result in _________
FREEZING RAIN
**______ is the indicated altitude of an aiplane`s altimeter corrected for temperature variation form standard atmospheric temperature , ______ is an approximation of true altitude
CORRECTED ALTITUDE
actual atmospheric pressure at field elevation
STATION PRESSURE
thunderstorm embedded in clouds or thick haze layers and therefore can not be seen
EMBEDDED THUNDERSTORM
_____ of thunderstorm , a cumulus cloud is building and there are continuous updraft. updraft exceed _______ in cumulus stage
CUMULUS STAGE , 3000FPM
_____ of a thunderstorm begins when rain begins falling at the surface . in this stage , updraft can be _______fpm
MATURE STAGE , 6000FPM
thunderstorm downdraft can be expected to exceed _____fpm
2500FPM
most often result from surface heating . precipitation forms inside of updraft so retards the updraft . reverses it to a downdraft. life cycle is 20min - 1 hour . maximum intensity is middle and late afternoon
AIR-MASS THUNDERSTORM
usually associated with weather systems . precipitation often forms outside of updraft . persists several hours
STEADY-STATE THUNDERSTORM
cumulonimbus cloud with hanging protuberances like poucheds or udders on the underside of cloud. usually indicates severe turbulenceand tornado
CUMULUNIMBUS MAMMA
is a non frontal narrow band of active thunderstorms that develop in moist , unstable air ahead of a cold front
SQUALL LINE
**precipitation intensity as 1____ 2____ 3____4_____
LIGHT , MODERATE , HEAVY , EXTREAM
**rain that falls through colder air and becomes supercooled , freezing on impact
FREEZING RAIN
_____ is alway indicate freezing rain at higher altitude
PL ( ICE PALLET )
참고로 기온역전현상이 고고도에 있을때 , 1 freezing rain 존재 , 지표에선 ice pallet 현상 . 내 고도의 기온이above freezing level 일때 , wet snow
*when ____ is encountered , it indicates the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude
WET SNOW
frost forms when temperature _____ , dewpoint ______
when frost form on the aircraft surface?
BELOW FREEZING , BELOW FREEZING, clear clam night light wind
____ is the direct deposition of water vapor to ice crystal
FROST
**frozen dew is ________ , frost is ______
WHITE AND TRANSPERENT , WHITE AND OPAQUE
conditions that are conducive to the formation of clear ice include an outside temperature is _______
0도 ~ -10도
pilot should check for ice accumulation prior to flight by using _______ to scan the surface of the airflame and watch _______
FLASH LIGHT , LIGHTS REFLECTION
the amount of residual ice increases as airspeed ______ , temperature ______
DECREASE , DECREASE
*maximum winds associated with jet stream occur ______
IN THE VICINITY OF BREAKS IN THE TROPOPAUSE ON THE POLAR SIDE OF JET CORE
the rate of jet stream wind speed is greater on ________ than _____
POLAR SIDE OF JETSTREAM , EQUATORIAL SIDE OF JET STREAM
the magnitude of wind shear is greater on _____ than ______
POLAR SIDE , EQUATORIAL SIDE OF JET STREAM
the jet stream is acrossing ____ front
OCCULUDED FRONT
alway indicate freezing rain at higher altitude
ICE PALLETS
the layer from the surface to an average altitude of 7 mi , and it is characterized by an overall decrease of temperature with an increses in altitude
TROPOSPHERE
the thin layer forming the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere
TROPOPAUSE
*associated with the polar front or the area between the cold polar and warm tropical air masses
POLAR FRONT JET STREAM
*a circumpolar jetstream located on the northern peryphery of the tropical latitudes
SUB TROPICAL JET STREAM
*is in the stratosphere near the arctic circle during the winter month
POLAR NIGHT JET STREAM
general term for a rotating , organized system of clouds and thunderstorms that originates over tropical or subtropical
TROPICAL CYCLONE
a visibility- restricting phenomenon that occurs in the arctic when a cloud layer of uniform thickness overlies a snow or ice-covered surface
WHITE OUT
____ is a general term for a rotating , organized system of clouds and thunderstorms that originates over tropical or subtropical
TROPICAL CYCLONE
*tropical cyclone are classified according to their intensity based on average____ wind speed
1MIN
tropical classification is 1____ 2____ 3___
TROPICAL DEPRESSION , TROPICAL STRORM , TROPICAL CYCLONE
*gust in tropical cyclones can exceed the average one-minute wind speed by as much as ____ %
50%
when the wind speed is less than 5kt , the forecast is coded , which means that the wind is light and variable
9900 WIND AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT CHART 731960
739960
routine weather report
METAR
aviation selected weather report
SPECI
____ are actual weater observation at the time indicated on the report
METAR
aviation selected weather report
SPECI
fully automated weather reporting station with no human intervention
AUTO
the automated weahter station has a precipitation discriminator
A02
visibility less than 1/4
M1/4SM
**light rain shower
-SHRA
**thunderstorm with heavy rain
+TSRA
sudden increase of at least 16kt in average wind speed to a sustained speed of 22kt or more for at least 1 min
SQ SQUALL
routine forcast
TAF
ammended forecast
TAF AMD
____ are weather forecasts for selected airports throughout the country . they are a source of weather to expect at your destination airport at yout ETA
TAF
VV001 MEANS
100ft indefinite ceiling
SNINCR 1/10 MEANS
1INCH INCREASE AT LAST 1 HR AND TOTAL ACCUMULATION IS 10INCH
amended forcast
TAF AMD
calm wind is
00000KT
weather condition expected to occur in the vicinity of the aiport
VC thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity of the airport
VCTS
automated weather reporting station detects that maintenace is needed on the system
$
____ contain information regarding volcanic eruption , turbulence , and icing conditions for a specific region
IN-FLIGHT AVIATION WEATHER ADVISORY
**____ on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure reduce to sea level
ISOBAR
1____ 2____ 3___ reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast icing condition
PIREP , AIRMET ZULU , SIGMET
**___ provide information about the observed upper-air temperature , wind , and temperature/dewpoint spread along the poposed route.
CONSTANT PRESSURE ANALYSIS CHART
____ is plotted using a star at the cloud top location
SATELLITE OBSERVATION
____is plotted using a square at the aircraft location
AIRCRAFT OBSERVATION
**1___ 2___ are issued to notify en route pilots of the possibility of encountering hazardous flying condition
AIRMET , SIGMET
**convective sigmets indicating a LVL 5 means ____
INTENSE THUNDERSTORM
**a pilot can expect icing when flying in 1____ , between 온도 _____
VISIBLE MOISTURE , +2도 ~ - 10도
____: ice become perceptible
dispatchers and flight crew members can use _____ to determine an overview of selected flying weather condition
MID-LEVEL SIGNIFICANT WEATHER PROGNOSTIC CHART
____ provides flight crews of properly equipped aircraft with a flight deck display of flight operational information . it is designed to provide coverage from ____ to ____
FISDL , 5,000FT AGL , 17,500FT MSL
___ are generated using weather data from the TDWR or the integrated terminal weather system testbed.
TWIP
data that may be added to AWOS is limited to 1___ 2___ 3___
TS , PRECIPITAITON , VISIBILITY LESS THAN 3SM
___ are the only cloud type forecast in the terminal aerodrome forecast
CUMULONIMBUS
_____ are the only indicated by PROB group
1. THUNDERSTORM 2. OTHER PRECIPITAITION
**constant pressure alalysis charts contain contours , isotherms , and some contain isotach, the contours depict 1___2___3___4___
TROUGH , RIDGE , LOWS , HIGHS ALOFT
convective outlook section is valid _____
2HR - 6HR AFTER THE VALID TIME
convective sigmets are issued for severe thunderstorms occuring ________
MORE THAN 30MIN REGARDLESS OF SIZE
____may be issued when any of the specific conditions occur or are expected to occur in an area deemed to have a significant effect o n the safety of aircraft operations
SIGMET
what weather database can a dispatcher access concerning wind shear activity at an airport
TWIP
thunderstorm activity that may grow to severe intensity is indicated on the severe weather outlook chart as
APCHG
it is a change in wind velocity over a given distance
WINDSHEAR
a rapid change in wind direction or velocity causing airspeed changes greater than 15kt or vertical speed changes greater than 500fpm
SEVERE WIND SHEAR
**________is best defined as turbulence encountered 1__2___3___4___
CAT 1. outside of convective cloud . 2. the vicinity of cirrus and standing lenticular cloud 3. associated with high level wind shear 4. the vicinity of jetstream
when making an altitude change to get out of jet stream turbulence you should 1____ 2____
descend if the ambient temperature is falling
climb if the ambient temperature is increasing
____ is small scale intense downdrafts from thunderstorms that , on reacing the surface , spread outward in all directions from downdraft center
MICROBURST
horizontal winds of microburst near the surface can be as strong as ___ , total ____
45KT , 90KT
streamers of precipitation that evaporate before reaching the groung , known as ____ , can indicate the presence of a microburst
VIRGA
____ are created when airplanes develop lift
WINGTIP VORTEX , INDUCED DRAG , WAKE TURBULENCE
____ can result in an upwind voltex remaining in the touchdown zone for a longer period of time
LIGHT CROSSWIND
___ hold the voltices of preceding aircraft on the runway for the longest period of time
LIGHT QUATERING TAIL WIND
is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to unpair functions of the brain and other organs . it is caused by reduced barometric pressure at incresed altitude. symptom is 1. initial feeling euphoria , 2. headache , 3. delay reaction time 4. unconsciousness
HYPOXIA
the result of insufficient oxygen being available to the body the reduction of available oxygen at high altitude
HYPOXIC HYPOXIA
when the blood is unable to take up and transport and adequate amount of oxygen to the cells even though and adequate supply is available for intake. a lack of blood or blood donation . CO poisoning
HYPEMIC HYPOXIA
when an adequate amount of oxygen-rich blood is available in the lungs but unable to be transferred to the cells . usually identified by arm or leg .
STAGNANT HYPOXIA
the inability of the cells to effectively use the oxygen carried by the blood. alcohol , drug or poison
HISTOTOXIC HYPOXIA
it has and adverse effect on pilots , especially as altitude increases. it decreases mental capability and renders pilots more susceptible to disorientation and hypoxia
ALCOHOL
it results from an abnormal increases in the volume of breathing. the result is an excessive amount of carbon dioxide being removed from the body
HYPERVENTILATION
scanning procedure for effective collision avoidance should constitute look outside _____ , inside _____
15SEC, 5SEC
at night , one should scan for traffic slowly to permit _______
OFF CENTER VIEWING
a threat of collision exists if an aircraft ahead appears to have no lateral or vertical movement and is ______
INCREASING SIZE
pilot who use body sensations to interpret flight attitudes are more subject to ________________
SPARTIAL DISORIENTATION
____ can be difined as a systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances
ADM AERONAUTICAL DECISION MAKING
**____ is the part of the decision-making process that relies on 1_____ 2_____ 3____to reduce risks and manage _____ associated with each flight
RISK MANAGEMENT , PROBLEM RECOGNITION , GOOD JEDGEMENT ,MANAGE EXTERNAL PRESSURE , EXERNAL PRESSURE
**____ put time-related pressures on the pilot and factor into a majority of accidents
EXTERNAL PRESSURE
***____ with meeting a specific goal impairs pilot judgement , sometimes causing the pilot to disregard any alternative course of action
FIXATION
five fundamental risk elements in the ADM process that comprise any given aviation situation are
FLIGHT
PILOT
PLANE
ENVIRONMENT
TYPE OF OPERATION
**example of ______ that even experienced pilot may fall into , and that often lead to accidents and incidents , include the compulsion to complete a flight as planned , the determination to _______
CLASSIC BEHAVIOR TRAP , GET THE JOB DONE
an example of ______ is not cross checking the heading indicator with the runway for correct runway heading and alignment prior to takeoff
OPERATIONAL PITFALL
**____ is an excellent example of an analytical decision - making process
DECIDE
**____ is an attitude or tendency to act in a certain way. while not the most important factor , understanding ______ can help alleviate risk, many experience pilots fall prey to dangerous tendencies or behavioral problems that must be identified and eliminated , including 1____2___3____4____
PREDISPOSITION , PREDISPOSITION
PEER PRESSURE , SCUD RUNNING , LOSS OF SA , OPERATING WITHOUT ADEQUATE FUEL RESERVE
____ is the accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the five fundamental risk elements that affect safety before , during , after the flight
SA SITUATIONAL AWARENESS
***____ is a motivaltional predisposition to respond to people , situation , or events in a given manner. it has an effect on decision
ATTITUDE
____ is the body`s response to physical and psychological demands placed upon it .
STRESS
____ is used to describe an element that causes an individualto experience stress
example of this 1___ 2___ 3___
STRESSOR , PHYSICAL STRESS , PSYCOLOGICAL STRESS , PHYSIOLOGICAL STRESS
**___ is defined as a physiological state of reduced metal or physical performance capability resulting from lack of sleep or increased physical activity that can reduce a flight crew member`s aleartness and ability to safely operate an aircraft ro perform safety - related duties
FATIGUE
___ is a feeling of fatigue that causes a temporary degradation performance and occurs immediately after waking up
SLEEP INERTIA
***skill fatigue is in acute fatigue , it has two main effect on performance 1____ 2____
TIMING DISRUPTION - timing is slightly off , so operation is less smooth .
DISRUPTION OF THE PERCEPTUAL FIELD - concentrating attention upon movements or objects in the center of vision and neglecting those in the periphery. it is accocompanied by loss of accuracy and smoothness in control movement
one purpose of crew resource management is to give crews tools to 1____2___
RECOGNIZE HAZARD , MITIGATE HAZARD
the goal of all flight crews is _____ , the use of ___ is oneway to make good decision
GOOD ADM , CRM
**crm error management requires 1____ 2____
ERROR DETECTION , ERROR RECOVERY TRAINING
crm training is comprised of three component 1___ 2___ 3___
INITIAL INDOCTRINATION/AWARENESS , FEEDBACK , CONINUAL REINFORCEMENT
*five traits were discovered in pilot prone to having accidents . these pilot 1__2__3__4__5__
1. have disdain toward rule
2. have very high correlation between accidents on their flying record and safety violation on their driving record
3. frequently fall into the thrill and adventure seeking
4.impulsive rather rhan methodical and disciplined , both in their information gathering and in the speed and selection of actions to be taken
5. have disregard for or underutilization of outside sources of information, including copilot , flight attendent , flight service personnel , flight instructors , and atc
runway incursion have identified three major areas .1___ 2___ 3___
1.failure to comply with atc instruction
2. lack of airport familiarity
3.nonconformance with standard operating procedure
***___ is a function that encourages and trains crews to cross-check each other. this practice can enhance flight safety and _____
CREW MONITORING , CFIT
***____ can be taught and increases with experience through accident - free flight hours
GOOD JUDGEMENT
erros , such as a proficent and current pilot failing to notice the landing gear not being extended for landing , do not result form a liack of systems training or procedures knowledge. this is a failure to ________
DETECT THE PROBLEM
change in wind velocity over a given distance
WIND SHEAR
the effect of a prolonged constant-rate turn under IFR conditions followed by an abrupt head movement that creates the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis
COLIOLIS ILLUSION
occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff and creates the illusion that the airplane is in a nose-up attitude
SOMATOGRAVIC ILLUSION
occur in the dark when a pilot stares at a stationary light for a period of time , creating the illusion that the light is moving about
AUTOKINESIS
detect estimate choose identify do evaluate
the most important key of risk management
MANAGEMENT OF EXTERNAL PRESSURE
one purpose of crew resource management is to give crews tools to 1____2____
RECOGNIZE HAZARD , MITIGATE HAZARD
how often are NOTAM broadcast to pilot on a scheduled basis
HOURLY , APPENDED TH THE WEATHER BROADCAST
what would athorized an air carrier to conduct a special instrument approach procedure
OPERATIONS SPECIFICATIONS
when a pilot`s flight time consists of 80 hours pilot in command in a particular type airplane , how does minimums for the destination airport
DH 100FT , VIS 1/2 INCREASE
military training routes above 1,500ft are depicts on _____
IFR LOW ENROUTE CHART
which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence an a tendency toward the production of funnel cloud
CUMULONIMBUS MAMMA
which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes
SQUALL LINE & COLD FRONT
what type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily cause slight , erratic changes in altitude and or attitude , one third - two thirds of the time
INTERMITTENT LIGHT TURBULENCE
volcanic ash advisory charts ar e updated every _____ hrs
6HR
crm training 구성 3가지
initial indoctrination / practice and feed back / continual reinforcement
crm error management 구성 3
error prevention , error detection , recovery form the error
all experienced pilot have fallen prey to
peer pressure , lose of sa , operating inadequate fuel reserve
risk management is the part of ADM , which relies on
SA , problem recognition , good judgement
모의문제
How does V(NE) speed vary with altitude?
안변함. VMO / MMO는 고도 상승 에 따라 감소
In what cases can it not be used as an alternative airport?
1. NAVAID UNMORNITOR
2. GPS BASE APPROACH
3. WEATHER MINIMUM
위의 3가지 조건에선 대체공항 수립 X
when is the crew monitioring function is essential
EVERY PHASE OF FLIGHT , ESPECIALLY APPROACH AND LANDING
how the stability of the atmosphere be determined
AMBIENT TEMPERATURE RAPSE RATE
which is an effect of ice , snow , frost formation on an airplane ?
STALLING ANGLE OF ATTACK WILL DECREASE BEFORE STALL WARNING DEVICE INDICATES THE STALL
1. weight increase
2. skin friction drag increase
3. stall speed decrease
when leaving ground effect , the airplane will require ____ to maintain the same lift coefficient , which will increase _____
HIGHER ANGLE OF ATTACK , INDUCED DRAG
what is the expected function of wing - mounted vortex generators 1___2___
1. DELAYS THE ONSET OF DRAG DIVERGENCE AT HIGH SPEED
2. AIDS TO REMAIN AILERON EFFECTIVENESS AT HIGH SPEED
how nuch of the kinetic energy will increase if the landing weight is increased by 10%
21% INCREASE KINETIC ENERGY
***airport information signs , used to provide destination or information, have ____ inscriptions on a ____ background
BLACK , YELLOW
the airport markings , signage , lighting associated with land and hold short operations (LAHSO) consist of ____ ____ signage , ____ marking , and some airports in-pavement lights. 색깔이뭔지
RED AND WHITE , YELLOW
which IFR fix should be entered on a composite flight plan?
THE FIX WHERE THE IFR PORTION IS TO BE TERMINATED. LAST IFR FIX
what is the purpose of an off route clearnace altitude depicted on an IFR enrote navigation chart?
1___2___
FOR EMERGENCY , INCREASE SA
while being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach , when may the pilot descend to published altitude?
ONLY WHEN APPROACH CONTROL CLEARS THE FLIGHT FOR THE APPROACH
to manage flight deck stress , a pilot should 1____ 2___
TRY TO RELAX , THINK RATIONALLY AT THE FIRST SIGN OF THE STRESS
**an air carrirer crew fixated on completing the last flight of a four day trip often may exhibit ______
GET THERE IT IS
automatic decision making is ________
A REFLECXIVE TYPE OF DECISION MAKING